Krugman thinks the behavior of long-term real interest
rates contradicts our thesis. They rose in the middle of 2008, but not,
he says, catastrophically, as they should have if the Fed were really
running a much-too-tight policy. Krugman is incorrect about the
implications of our account. We would expect the Fed's contractionary
mistakes to have led to an increase in the risk premium. It did. We
would also expect it to reduce the prospects of economic growth and thus
lead to a decline in long-term real interest rates adjusted for the
risk premium. Again, that's what happened.
Read the whole article, it's great.
I find it very odd that Krugman would claim that real interest rates
are a good indicator of whether Fed policy is effectively getting
tighter. After all, real interest rates soared right after Lehman
failed, to over 4%. And yet that dramatic increase is strangely missing
from the
Krugman post they link to:
I'd just add that if there were anything to this story, we
should have seen a sharp increase in long-term real interest rates, as
investors saw the Fed getting behind the disinflationary curve. Here's
the real 10-year rate in the months leading up to Lehman:
Why did Krugman leave off that surge in real interest rates? Perhaps
because it would imply that money got really tight in late 2008 and,
AFAIK, none of the mainstream Keynesians were saying that money was
really tight at that time. Although I was not yet blogging, I was
complaining about Fed policy to people I met, like Greg Mankiw and
Robert Barro.
The second reason I found Krugman's claim to be odd is that he had
previously criticized
Friedman's frequent assertion that the Fed caused the Great Contraction
of 1929-33 with a tight money policy. Krugman insisted that Friedman
was being "intellectually dishonest" because, (according to Krugman) the
Fed did not cause the downturn, they failed to prevent it.
As people like Nick Rowe frequently point out, the distinction between
causing and failing to prevent is meaningless unless one can agree one
what it means for the central bank to be "doing something". But
economists do not agree, indeed Paul Krugman doesn't even agree with
himself. When dismissing Friedman's argument he pointed out that the
monetary base increased between 1929 and 1933. So in that case Krugman
saw the monetary base, not real interest rates, as the proper metric of
Fed action, or inaction. I suppose this is not surprising, because
given the rapid deflation of 1929-33, many experts believe real interest
rates shot up to very high levels. So if Krugman's current criticism
of Beckworth and Ponnuru is correct, then his earlier criticism of
Friedman is discredited.
But it gets even worse. Real interest rates are not a reliable
indictor of the stance of monetary policy, as Beckworth and Ponnuru
explain. And this is not just a market monetarist view, it's also
Ben Bernanke's view:
The imperfect reliability of money growth as an
indicator of monetary policy is unfortunate, because we don't really
have anything satisfactory to replace it. As emphasized by Friedman (in
his eleventh proposition) and by Allan Meltzer, nominal interest rates
are not good indicators of the stance of policy, as a high nominal
interest rate can indicate either monetary tightness or ease, depending
on the state of inflation expectations. Indeed, confusing low nominal
interest rates with monetary ease was the source of major problems in
the 1930s, and it has perhaps been a problem in Japan in recent years as
well. The real short-term interest rate, another candidate measure of
policy stance, is also imperfect, because it mixes monetary and real
influences, such as the rate of productivity growth. In addition, the
value of specific policy indicators can be affected by the nature of the
operating regime employed by the central bank, as shown for example in
empirical work of mine with Ilian Mihov.
In the same speech, Bernanke suggested a better indicator of the stance of policy:
Ultimately, it appears, one can check to see if an economy
has a stable monetary background only by looking at macroeconomic
indicators such as nominal GDP growth and inflation. On this criterion
it appears that modern central bankers have taken Milton Friedman's
advice to heart.
But wait a minute, didn't NGDP and the price level fall in the second
half of 2008? Yes they did, and so by Bernanke's criteria monetary
policy became very tight.
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